Here is Dr. Mikovits' response to the EEC, link, Annette Whittemore's response, link, and the response of the WPI's Clinical Advisory Board, link, sent to Science over the weekend.
It can't be both a contaminant and not there at the same time. Which is it? The totality of the evidence says neither. Why is no one asking the real question? How is it that VIP Dx finds approximately 4 out of 10 patients positive, not zero and not 100%? How do you explain contaminating only some of the specimens in the same run?